CCNA v3 – 171 Questions – Certification Exam Answers latest – (200-125)

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1.After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief

Correct Answer: A

2. Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

Correct Answer: AB

3. If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?

A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288

Correct Answer: A

4. Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

Correct Answer: AB

5. Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always

Correct Answer: A

6. Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)

A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding

Correct Answer: AB

7. If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Correct Answer: C

8. The left describes the types of cables, while the right describes the purposes of the cables. Drag the items on the left to the proper locations. (Not all items can be used.)
(THE COMMUNITY SHARED THAT THERE IS ANOTHER OPTION SO STUDY ALL OF WHAT THIS CABLES ARE FOR)

 

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


9. Match the items on the left with appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

 

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

10. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C

11. Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?

A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration

Correct Answer: BD

12. What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router

Correct Answer: AB

13. Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?

A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/ySwitch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20

C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20

D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

Correct Answer: A

14. Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)

A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin

Correct Answer: ABC

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
The 10.0.0.0/22 subnet mask will include the 10.0.0.0, 10.0.1.0, 10.0.2.0, and 10.0.3.0 networks, and only those four networks.

16. Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Correct Answer: C

17. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Correct Answer: B

18. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity

A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed

Correct Answer: D

19. A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut

B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut

C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relayMain(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut

D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Correct Answer: B
20. Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: B

21. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.

Correct Answer: BDF

22. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Correct Answer: D

23. What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Correct Answer: A

24. Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be
configured to authenticate to each other.

Correct Answer: B

25. What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.

Correct Answer: B

26. Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

 

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded
out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded
out fa0/1.

Correct Answer: BD

27. Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?

A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp

Correct Answer: C

28. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

A. It checks the configuration register.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

Correct Answer: A

29. What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Correct Answer: AEF

30. Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE
31. Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

A. show interface trunk
B. show interface interface
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interface vlan
E. show interface switchport
Correct Answer: AE

32. Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A. discardingB. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled

Correct Answer: AD

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Correct Answer: C
34. Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.

Correct Answer: BCE

35. What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure.
C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing
their size.
E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
their size.
F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Correct Answer: ACD

36. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and
Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain
one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will
have only one root port.F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Correct Answer: BDE

37. Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Correct Answer: AD

38. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Correct Answer: ADE

39. Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

A. no carrier
B. late collisions
C. giants
D. CRC errors
E. deferred
F. runts

Correct Answer: B

40. Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?

A. PQ
B. CBWFQ
C. round robin
D. RSVP

Correct Answer: D

41. When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU?

A. It continues operating normally.
B. It goes into a down/down state.
C. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN.
D. It goes into an errdisable state.

Correct Answer: D

42. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.

Correct Answer: BCF

43. Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation?

A. router#show platform
B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0
D. router#show ip interface brief

Correct Answer: B

44. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)

A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.

Correct Answer: DE

45. What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

Correct Answer: BC

46. What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?

A. a recursive DNS search
B. the operating system cache
C. the ISP local cache
D. the browser cache

Correct Answer: A

47. Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?

A. show ip bgp summary
B. show ip community-list
C. show ip bgp paths
D. show ip route

Correct Answer: A

48. During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?

A. the PPP Session phase
B. Phase 2
C. the Active Discovery phase
D. the Authentication phase
E. Phase 1

Correct Answer: A

49. Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)

A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.

Correct Answer: BCD
50. Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)

A. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.
B. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints.
C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.
D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.
E. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface.
F. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds.

Correct Answer: CD

51. Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)

A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.
B. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.
C. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.
D. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.
E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.

Correct Answer: AE

52. Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
B. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network.
C. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
D. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
E. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
F. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.

Correct Answer: BC

53. Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. route(config-router)#default-information originate

Correct Answer: A
54. Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches?

A. star
B. hub and spoke
C. point-to-point
D. full mesh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
In a Hub-and-spoke Site-to-Site Wide Area Network (WAN) network topology, one physical site act as Hub (Example, Main Office), while other physical sites act as spokes. Spoke sites are connected to each other via Hub site. In Huband-spoke Wide Area Network (WAN) topology, the network communication between two spokes always travels through the hub.

55. Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?

A. successors
B. advertised changes
C. goodbye messages
D. expiration of the hold timer

Correct Answer: C

56. If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?

A. informational messages only
B. warning and error conditions only
C. normal but significant conditions only
D. error conditions only
E. all levels except debugging

Correct Answer: E

57. Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)

A. It ensures that user activity is untraceable.
B. It provides a secure accounting facility on the device.
C. device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirely.
D. It allows the user to remotely access devices from other vendors.
E. It allows the users to be authenticated against a remote server.
F. It supports access-level authorization for commands.

Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation/Reference:
http://tacacs.net/docs/TACACS_Advantages.pdf http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/remote-authentication-dial-user-serviceradius/13838- 10.html

58. What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model’s INTERNET layer?

A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Presentation
E. Network

Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference: NOT SURE ABOUT THE CHOICES. NOT SURE ABOUT THE QUESTION EITHER.

59. Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following
switched network topology changes.
B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

Correct Answer: BE
60. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
B. DHCP
C. NHRP
D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
E. ISATAP tunneling

Correct Answer: AB

61. A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?

A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode

Correct Answer: A

62. How to verify strong and secured SSH connection?

A. ssh -v 1 -l admin 10.1.1.1
B. ssh -v 2 -l admin 10.1.1.1
C. ssh -l admin 10.1.1.1
D. ssh –v 2 admin 10.1.1.1

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference: Sorry for the question but they said it was something like that.

63. Which statement about RADIUS security is true?

A. It supports EAP authentication for connecting to wireless networks.
B. It provides encrypted multiprotocol support.
C. Device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirety.
D. It ensures that user activity is fully anonymous.

Correct Answer: A

64. If you are configuring syslog messages specifying ‘logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?

A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-2
D. 0-6
E. 0-1

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
0 emergencies System is unusable
1 alerts Immediate action is needed
2 critical Critical conditions exist
3 errors Error conditions exist
4 warnings Warning conditions exist
5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist
6 informational Informational messages
7 debugging Debugging messages

65. What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?

A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201
B. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1
C. N/A
D. N/A

Correct Answer: A

66. What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)

A. 802.2 ProtocolB. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10BaseT half duplex
D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.ieee802.org/3/
CSMA/CD – It uses a carrier sensing scheme in which a transmitting station detects collisions by sensing transmissions from other stations while transmitting a frame. When this collision condition is detected, the station stops transmitting that frame.

67. What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures?

A. Packet loss
B. Congestion
C. Hop-by-hop “something”
D. -ANOTHER OPTION-
E. -ANOTHER OPTION-

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
There is no RRT (Round-trip time) in the choices @Mik said.

68. What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.)

A. Recursive routes
B. Directly connected routes
C. Fully specified routes
D. Advertised routes
E. Virtual links
F. Redistributed routes

Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation/Reference:
http://ipcisco.com/ipv6-static-routes-for-cisco-routers/
http://www.orbit-computer-solutions.com/ipv6-static-and-default-route-how-to-configure-ipv6-static-and-default-
route/

69. How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)

A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interfaceC. Enable auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
E. -ANOTHER OPTION-

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C because we can enable or disable auto-summary in rips.

70. What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. Errdisabled

Correct Answer: C

71. What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)

A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default

Correct Answer: ACD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Trunking_Protocol

72. How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)

A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
E. -ANOTHER OPTION-

Correct Answer: ABC

73. What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
E. -ANOTHER OPTION-

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://flylib.com/books/2/686/1/html/2/images/1587051990/graphics/13fig01.gif

74. What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?

A. CSMA/CA
B. -ANOTHER OPTION-
C. -ANOTHER OPTION-
D. CSMA/CD

Correct Answer: D

75. Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?

A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: The ‘dynamic auto’ will configure the port to accept incoming negotiation and will accept becoming either a trunk or an access port. Dynamic Auto allows the port to negotiate DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) if the
other side is set to trunk or desirable. Otherwise it will become an access port.

76. If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?

A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-2
D. 0-6
E. 0-1

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Router(config)# logging trap level – Specifies the kind of messages, by severity level, to be sent to the
syslog server. The default is informational (6) and lower ( 0 – 6). The possible values for level are as follows:
Emergency: 0
Alert: 1
Critical: 2
Error: 3
Warning: 4
Notice: 5
Informational: 6
Debug: 7

77. Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?

A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10

Correct Answer: A

78. Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?

A. VRRP
B. GLBP
C. TFTP
D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

79. Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

Correct Answer: B

80. If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts connected in another port, how may collision domains are present on the router?

A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: B

81. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

Correct Answer: ACD

82. You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: B

83. What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A. speed
B. DTP negotiation settings
C. trunk encapsulation
D. duplex

Correct Answer: B

84. Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)

A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

Correct Answer: AB

85. Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. PVST+
D. Mono Spanning Tree

Correct Answer: A

86. A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the runningconfiguration.
D. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to
themaximum defined.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN

Correct Answer: CD

87. Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?

A. fragment-free switching
B. store-and-forward switching
C. cut-through switching
D. ASIC switching

Correct Answer: C

88. Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond precision?

A. no logging console
B. logging buffered 4
C. no logging monitor
D. service timestamps log datetime mscec
E. logging host 10.2.0.21

Correct Answer: D

89. Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)

A. OSPF is a link-state protocol.
B. Updates are sent to a broadcast address.
C. It uses split horizon.
D. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.
E. RIP is a link-state protocol.
F. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.

Correct Answer: ADF

90. Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?

A. show ip interface brief
B. show vlan
C. show interfaces
D. show interface switchport

Correct Answer: D

91. Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

A. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20
B. Switch#show vlan id 20
C. Switch#show ip interface brief
D. Switch#show interface vlan 20

Correct Answer: B

92. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)

A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B

Correct Answer: AE

93. Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine whether a VoIP issue is caused
by excessive end-to-end time?

A. packet loss
B. jitter
C. successive packet loss
D. round-trip time latency

Correct Answer: D

94. Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

A. A. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STР.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
D. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.

Correct Answer: B

95. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host В fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

A. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
B. Host В and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
C. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
D. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
E. Host В needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: C

96. Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?

A. There is a duplex mismatch.
B. The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
C. The serial interface is disabled.
D. The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
E. Port security has disabled the interface.
F. The interface is fully functioning.

Correct Answer: E

97. Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
D. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
E. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.

Correct Answer: CE

98. Refer to the exhibit

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

A. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
B. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30
C. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26
D. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25
E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30F. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26

Correct Answer: AD

99. Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing

A. Layer 2 bridge
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Layer 3 switch
D. router

Correct Answer: C

100. Which statement about LLDP is true?

A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
B. It is configured in global configuration mode.
C. The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.
D. It runs over the transport layer.

Correct Answer: B

101. If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?

A. switch 0040.0ВС0.90C5
B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

Correct Answer: C

102. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IPaddresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

A. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors
B. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
C. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
D. Router# show ip eigrp topology

Correct Answer: A

103. Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

A. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.
B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
C. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
E. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.

Correct Answer: BDF

104. Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?

A. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12
B. show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12
C. show ip dhcp server statistics
D. show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12

Correct Answer: A

105. Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)

A. Switch B – Fа0/0
B. Switch A – Fa0/1C. Switch В – Fa0/l
D. Switch С – Fа0/1
E. Switch A – Fa0/0
F. Switch С – Fa0/0

Correct Answer: ABC

106. Refer to the exhibit

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

A. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1

B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

C. Switch1(config)# line con0Switch1(config-line)# password ciscoSwitch1(config-line)# login

D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# duplex fullSwitch1(confiq-if)# speed 100

Correct Answer: A

107. Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP.
No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the
indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. SwitchD. Gi0/2, root
B. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
C. SwitchB, Gi0/l, designated
D. SwitchA, Fa0/l, root
E. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
F. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root

Correct Answer: ABD

108. Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

A. cut through
B. fast switching
C. process switching
D. Cisco Express Forwarding

Correct Answer: D

109. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. show ipv6

Correct Answer: C

110. What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)

A. The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.
B. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.
C. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.
D. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.
E. Autonegotiation is disabled.

Correct Answer: AD

11. Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

A. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
B. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.
C. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
D. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.

Correct Answer: C

112. Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?

A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP

Correct Answer: A

113. What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

A. 172.16.1.0/26
B. 172.16.1.0/25
C. 172.16.1.0/24
D. the default route

Correct Answer: A

114. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application

Correct Answer: E

115. What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

A. determine whether additional hardware has been added
B. locate an IOS image for booting
C. enable a TFTP server
D. set the configuration register

Correct Answer: A

116. Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP

Correct Answer: A

117. Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Correct Answer: ACD

118. Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?

A. virtual-template interface
B. DHCP
C. dialer interface
D. AAA authentication

Correct Answer: A

119. 

Select and Place

Correct Answer:

Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FF02::1 ———— All Nodes (link-local)
FF02::5 ———— OSPFv3 Routers
FF02::6 ———— OSPFv3 Designated Routers
FF02::A ———— EIGRPv3 Routers
FF02::D ———— PIM Routers
FF05::2 ———— All Routers (site-local)
120. Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links

Correct Answer: ABD

121. What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Correct Answer: BF

122. Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C. SW1#show running-config
D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Correct Answer: CD

123. Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC’s fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA’s fa0/2 port

Correct Answer: C

124. Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must
resolve the conflict.
E. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable
by the administrator.
F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the
server is rebooted.

Correct Answer: D

125. Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Correct Answer: BC

126. Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.

Correct Answer: C

127. Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.
B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.
C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

Correct Answer: BD

128. Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)

A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.

Correct Answer: ABC
129


A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.4.3.0
C. 172.15.4.0
D. 172.15.0.0
E. 192.168.4.0
F. 192.168.0.0

Correct Answer: ADE
130. Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?

A. Routing
B. Hairpinning
C. Encapsulation
D. Switching

Correct Answer: C

131. What does split horizon prevent?

A. routing loops, link state
B. routing loops, distance vector
C. switching loops, STP
D. switching loops, VTP

Correct Answer: B

132. Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?

A. interface
B. virtual IP address
C. priority
D. router ID

Correct Answer: C

133. Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?

A. prempt
B. priority
C. other options
D. other options

Correct Answer: A

134. Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

A. show interface status
B. show ip interface brief
C. show ip route
D. show interface

Correct Answer: B

135. Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?

A. Level 0B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16

Correct Answer: C

36. Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast

Correct Answer: C

137. Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)

A. It is the counterpart of IPv4 private addresses
B. It uses FC00::/7 as prefix
C. wrong
D. wrong

Correct Answer: AB

138. Which range represents the standard access list?

A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000

Correct Answer: A

139. What to do when the router password was forgotten?

A. use default password cisco to reset
B. access router physically
C. use ssl/vpn
D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1

Correct Answer: D

140. What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. it discovers the routers, switches and gateways.
B. it is network layer protocol
C. it is physical and data link layer protocol
D. it is proprietary protocol

Correct Answer: D

141. Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?

A. telnet
B. ssh
C. vtp
D. vpn
E. dmvpn

Correct Answer: B

142. How do you configure a hostname?

A. Router(config)#hostname R1

Correct Answer: A

143. How do you maintain security in multiple websites?

A. vpn
B. dmvpn
C. other
D. other

Correct Answer: A

144. Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Correct Answer: B

145. interface fa0/0
ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXXneighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.

A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31=
D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224

Correct Answer: A

146. What routing protocol use first-hand information?

A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
D. other

Correct Answer: A

147. What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?

A. SA
B. DA
C. FCS
D. other

Correct Answer: A

148. What is new in HSRPv2?

A. prempt
B. a greater number in hsrp group field
C. other
D. other

Correct Answer: B

149. What’s are true about MPLS?

A. It use a label to separete traffic from several costumer
B. It use IPv4 IPv6
C. other
D. other

Correct Answer: A

150. A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be used?

A. reflexive
B. extended
C. standard
D. dynamic

Correct Answer: D

151. Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?

A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all

Correct Answer: D

152. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security

B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords
being forgotten
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known
and widely reported
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates

Correct Answer: B

153. Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two.)

A. no logging console
B. logging host ip-address
C. terminal monitor
D. show logging | redirect flashioutput.txt
E. snmp-server enable traps syslog

Correct Answer: BC

154. Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?

A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN

Correct Answer: C

155. Which command is used to build DHCP pool?

A. ip dhcp pool DHCP
B. ip dhcp conflict
C. ip dhcp-server pool DHCP
D. ip dhcp-client pool DHCP

Correct Answer: C

156. Which command can you enter to verify echo request and echo reply?

A. ping
B. traceroute
C. tracert
D. telnet

Correct Answer: A

157. What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)

A. static reservation
B. DHCP reservation
C. prevent DHCP rouge server
D. prevent untrusted host and servers to connect

Correct Answer: BD

158. What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose Three.)

A. network access control
B. path isolation
C. virtual network services
D. policy enforcement

Correct Answer: ABC

159. What is called when variance with two times of metric?A. unequal cost load balancing

B. path selection
C. equal cost load balancing
D. other
Correct Answer: A

160. Standard industrialized protocol of etherchannel?

A. LACP
B. PAGP
C. PRP
D. REP

Correct Answer: A

161. Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)

A. It can send a specific number of packet
B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time

Correct Answer: AB

162. What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server?

A. ntp master 3
B. ntp peer IP
C. ntp server IP
D. ntp source IP

Correct Answer: A

163. Two statements about syslog loging?

A. Syslog logging is disabled by default
B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device
C. Messages can be erased when device reboots
D. Messages are stored external to the device
E. other
F. other

Correct Answer: AD

164. How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?

A. Configure VLAN
B. Confiture NTP
C. Configure each VLAN
D. Configure VTP

Correct Answer: D

165. Which password types are encrypted?

A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. enable secret
D. enable password

Correct Answer: C

166. What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line? (Choose two.)

A. Low cost
B. Full-mesh capability
C. Flexibillity of designD. Simply configuration

Correct Answer: CD

167. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

A. 00000000
B. 11111100
C. 11111111
D. 11111101

Correct Answer: B

168. Which statemnet about ACLs is true?

A. An ACL have must at least one permit action, else it just blocks all traffic.
B. ACLs go bottom-up through the entries looking for a match
C. An ACL has a an implicit permit at the end of ACL.
D. ACLs will check the packet against all entries looking for a match.

Correct Answer: A

169. What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?

A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.
B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the adjacency to go down.
C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.
D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

Correct Answer: C

170. What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three.)

A. Preamble
B. TTL
C. Type/length
D. Frame check sequence
E. version
F. others

Correct Answer: ACD

171. What utility is used for shadowed rules?

A. Create an action plan
B. Implement an action plan
C. Gather facts
D. others

Correct Answer: B

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