CCNP v8 Exam Answers

CCNPv8 ENCOR (Version 8.0) – CCNP ENCOR 8 Final Exam Answers

CCNPv8 ENCOR (Version 8.0) – CCNP ENCOR 8 Final Exam

1. What is a characteristic of a Yagi antenna that is used by Cisco Aironet Access Points?​

  • It provides 360-degree coverage.
  • It can be used for long-distance Wi-Fi networking.
  • It is also referred to as a “rubber duck” design.
  • It has the same characteristics as an omnidirectional Wi-Fi antenna.
Explanation: Yagi antennas are a type of directional radio antenna that can be used for long-distance Wi-Fi networking. They are typically used to extend the range of outdoor hotspots in a specific direction, owing to their high gain. Omnidirectional Wi-Fi antennas are also referred as a “rubber duck” design and provide 360-degree coverage.

2. What is a difference between autonomous APs and controller-based APs in wireless LANs?

  • Controller-based APs support PAgP and LACP protocols, whereas autonomous APs do not.
  • When wireless demands increase, controller-based APs provide a better solution than do autonomous APs.
  • Autonomous APs are easier to configure and manage than are controller-based APs.
  • Autonomous APs require no initial configuration, whereas the lightweight APs require an initial configuration before communicating with a WLAN controller.
Explanation: When the wireless demands increase, more autonomous APs would be required. Each of them operates independently of the others and each one requires manual configuration and management. This would become overwhelming if many APs are needed. Controller-based APs require no initial configuration and are often called lightweight APs. Controller-based APs are useful in situations where many APs are required in the network. As more APs are added, each AP is automatically configured and managed by the WLC. The WLC does not support PaGP or LACP.

3. What is the role of the Cisco Network Control Platform in the controller layer of the Cisco SD-Access architecture?

  • to provide all the underlay and fabric automation and orchestration services for the physical and network layers
  • to analyze and correlate network events and identify historical trends
  • to provide network operational status and other information to the management layer
  • to provide all the identity and policy services for the physical layer and network layers
Explanation: There are three control layer subsystems in the Cisco SD-Access architecture.

  • Cisco Network Control Platform (NCP) – provides underlay and fabric automation and orchestration
  • Cisco Network Data Platform (NDP) – analyzes and correlates network events
  • Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) – provides identity and policy services

4. Which two components are used by SaltStack to control state and send configuration changes? (Choose two.)

  • pillars
  • grains
  • cookbooks
  • playbooks
  • manifests
Explanation: SaltStack has masters and minions. SaltStack uses pillars to store data that a minion can retrieve from the master. SaltStack grains are run on the minions to gather system information that is reported back to the master.

5. What is a characteristic of the Cisco Embedded Event Manager?

  • It is a software component of the Cisco IOS.
  • It uses playbooks written in YAML to deploy configuration changes.
  • It is built on Python and has a Python programming interface.
  • It is an open source tool based on the Ruby language.
Explanation: The Cisco Embedded Event Manager (EEM) is a Cisco IOS tool that uses software applets to automate tasks on a Cisco device. EEM is completely contained within the local device and needs no external scripting or monitoring device.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

  • Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network
  • There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.
  • The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256
  • The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
  • The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.

7. A new network administrator has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

  • reliability
  • ΜTU
  • load
  • delay
  • bandwidth
Explanation: Bandwidth and delay are static values that are not actually tracked by a device. Load and reliability are tracked dynamically by a device over a default period of time. MTU is not used for EIGRP metrics.

8. Which factor can be used by an AP to improve the accuracy of locating a wireless client?

  • RSS
  • BSS
  • 802.11r
  • DHCP

9. What is the IPv6 address used by OSPFv3 non-DR/BDR routers to send link-state updates and link-state acknowledgments?

  • FF02::2
  • FF02::5
  • FF02::6
  • FF02::9

10. Match the Cisco SD-WAN solution component with the description. (Not all options are used.)

  • vManage Network Management System – configured with a public IP address so that all SD-WAN devices in the network can connect to it
  • vSmart controller – enables centralized provisioning and simplifies network changes
  • vBond orchestrator – authenticates each SD-WAN router that comes online
  • non – supports standard router features, such as OSPF, BGP, ACLS, QoS, and
    routing policies

11. Cisco has created a security framework to help protect networks from ever-evolving cybersecurity threats. What is the term given to a system that provides tools, such as breach detection, tracking, analysis, and surgical remediation, that organizations can use when advanced malware has slipped past other defenses?

  • AnyConnect
  • Talos
  • Threat Grid
  • Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)

12. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

  • altemate, root, designated, root
  • alternate, designated, root, root
  • designated, root, alternate, root
  • designated, alternate, root, root
Explanation: Because S1 is the root bridge, B is a designated port, and C and D root ports. RSTP supports a new port type, alternate port in discarding state, that can be port A in this scenario.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?

  • Gateway and CS1
  • Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
  • AS1 and AS2
  • DS1 and DS2

14. What protocol is used by puppet masters to push configuration code to puppet agents?

  • SSH
  • IPsec
  • HTTPS
  • SSL

15. Refer to the exhibit. A company adopts the hierarchical network model in the corporate LAN design. Layer 3 switches are deployed in the core and distribution layers. On which of the devices in this network should routing between workstation VLANs take place?

  • the distribution layer devices
  • the core and distribution layer devices
  • the access layer devices
  • the core layer devices

16. What does BGP use to exchange routing updates with neighbors?

  • group identification numbers
  • TCP connections
  • hellos
  • area numbers

17. What are three examples of hypervisors? (Choose three.)

  • vSphere
  • rkt
  • Hyper-V
  • VServer
  • Docker
  • XenServer

18. Which two methods are used by a single-root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV) enabled switch to switch traffic between VNFs? (Choose two.)

  • through a DMVPN
  • through a VXLAN
  • through an external switch
  • through the pNIC
  • through a vSwitch

19. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?

  • S3 Gi0/2 transitions from designated port to root port because of path cost changes caused by the root change.
  • Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3 to prevent a redundant path from S1.
  • S2 Gi0/1 becomes a nondesignated port because Gi0/2 has a lower path cost to S4.
  • Port priority makes Gio/2 on S1 a root port.
  • S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show bgp ipv4 unicast 172.16.0.0 command to check the route information in the BGP table. Which statement describes the characteristic of the advertisement of this route?

  • The route is advertised with the aggregate-address 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 summary-only command.
  • The route is advertised through an IGP
  • The route is advertised for networks directly connected to the BGP router 192.168.2.2.
  • The route is advertised through a static route
Explanation: As indicated in the BGP table, the route is an aggregate route 172.16.0.0/20 learned from the neighbor 192.168.2.2. The atomic-aggregate attribute indicates loss of path attributes, such as AS_Path in this scenario.

21. What type of signal requires little extra bandwidth because data is being sent at a relatively low bit rate?

  • orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
  • direct sequence spread spectrum
  • narrowband
  • parallel

22. Which wireless technology can combine the use of multiple antennas and radio chains to receive multiple copies of degraded wireless signals and convert them into one usable reconstructed wireless signal?

  • spatial multiplexing
  • spatial streams
  • maximal-ratio combining
  • transmit beamforming

23. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

  • R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in
  • R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out
  • R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
  • R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out
Explanation: Administrative access over SSH to the router is through the vty lines. Therefore, the ACL must be applied to those lines in the inbound direction. This is accomplished by entering line configuration mode and issuing the access-class command.

24. What two additional features does a Layer 3 switch offer compared with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

  • traffic that is forwarded at wire speeds
  • routing that is based upon IP addresses
  • forwarding that is based upon MAC addresses
  • hardware-based switching
  • forwarding between different networks

25. Refer to the exhibit. For which autonomous system would running BGP not be appropriate?

  • 65004
  • 65005
  • 65002
  • 65003
Explanation: It is appropriate to use BGP when an autonomous system is multihomed, or has more than one connection to another autonomous system or to the Internet. BGP is not appropriate for single-homed autonomous systems. Autonomous system 65003 is a single-homed AS because it is only connected to one other autonomous system, 65002.

26. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to match networks for BGP route filtering. The administrator creates an ACE permit ip 10.0.32.0 0.0.31.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.192. Which network matches the ACE?

  • 10.0.31.0/26
  • 10.0.62.0/25
  • 10.0.66.0/24
  • 10.0.32.0/27

27. A network engineer that works for a company that uses lightweight APs is examining various performance factors for the wireless network in a particular area of the company. The engineer notices that one AP has an index value of 40 for air quality. What significance, if any, does this value provide?

  • The engineer should physically examine the surrounding area of the AP for potential RF obstructions.
  • The engineer might evaluate this index value over a period of 30 days to see if the air conditioning or heat is affecting the RF range of the AP.
  • An air quality value of 40 is within acceptable performance range for a lightweight AP, so no action is required by the network engineer.
  • Because of poor air quality, the engineer should be concerned and evaluate other wireless channels for possible use.

28. How does an RP MA announcement provide redundancy in a PIM domain configured with the auto-RP mechanism?

  • RP MA announcements contain prune times to ensure a fast election if a change is detected.
  • RP MA announcements are sent out every 60 seconds only to ensure an election every 60 seconds in the event an RP goes down.
  • RP MA announcements contain elected RPs and group to RP mappings to ensure changes are detected and an election held if necessary.
  • RP MA announcements contain the unicast address to ensure the election with the highest unicast address succeeds as the new RP.

29. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

  • Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.
  • Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.
  • Change the administrative distance to 1.
  • Change the administrative distance to 120.
Explanation: The problem with the current floating static route is that the administrative distance is set too low. The administrative distance will need to be higher than that of OSPF, which is 110, so that the router will only use the OSPF link when it is up.

30. What is true about TCAM lookups that are associated with CEF switching?

  • A single TCAM lookup provides Layer 2. Layer 3, and ACL information
  • TCAM includes only Layer 3 lookup information.
  • TCAM lookup tables are used only for the rapid processing of ACLs within CEF.
  • TCAM lookup tables are used only for the Layer 3 forwarding operation.

31. Network users complain that the network is running very slowly. Upon investigation, a network technician discovers CPU spikes and exhausted memory resources on all the network devices. Also, numerous syslog messages are being generated that note continuous MAC address relearning. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

  • The routing protocol has been misconfigured and a routing loop is evident.
  • Keepalives are expected but do not arrive.
  • The dynamic routing protocol has not yet converged the network.
  • An incorrect encapsulation has been configured on one of the trunks that connect a Layer 2 device to a Layer 3 device within the affected segment.
  • A Layer 2 forwarding loop condition is present.

32. A network operator is testing a network management application that uses REST API to communicate with network devices. The operator received an HTTP response code 403 in a test step. What does this response code indicate?

  • Access is not granted based on supplied credentials.
  • The page at HTTP URL location does not exist or is hidden.
  • Client has not authenticated to access the site or API call.
  • Request failed due to a client-side issue.

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to describe the list of interfaces?

  • XML
  • YAML
  • JSON
  • YANG

34. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

  • There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
  • This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.
  • VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
  • The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
  • VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
Explanation: If a switch on the same VTP domain is added to the network and the switch has a higher configuration revision number, valid VLANs can be deleted and VLANs from the new switch can be sent to other switches in the VTP domain. This can result in loss of connectivity for some network devices. Always put a false domain name on a new switch and then change the VTP domain name to the correct one so the configuration revision number will be at 0 on the switch to be added.

35. A network engineer has issued the command standby 10 track 1 decrement 20 on an SVI of a multilayer switch. What is the purpose of this command?

  • HSRP tracks 10 objects on that interface and decrements the priority of each object by 20 if the interface fails once.
  • HSRP tracks that interface and dynamically decrements its priority by 20 every time it fails, up to a maximum of 10 failures.
  • It creates a tracked object against the interface line protocol and links the HSRP instance to the tracked object so that the priority decrements by 20 if that interface goes down.
  • It decrements the priority of the interface by 20 so that objects tracked by the HSRP instance do not use that interface unless the active interface goes down.

36. Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

  • transports large amounts of data between different geographic sites
  • forwards traffic to other hosts on the same logical network
  • forwards traffic that is destined for other networks
  • isolates network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer
  • allows end users to access the local network
  • provides a connection point for separate local networks
Explanation: The primary function of the distribution layer is to aggregate access layer switches in a given building or campus. The distribution layer provides a boundary between the Layer 2 domain of the access layer and the Layer 3 domain of the core. On the Layer 2 side, it creates a boundary for Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), limiting propagation of Layer 2 faults. On the Layer 3 side, it provides a logical point to summarize IP routing information when it enters the core Layer. The summarization reduces IP route tables for easier troubleshooting and reduces protocol overhead for faster recovery from failures.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

  • Trunk1
  • Trunk2
  • Trunk3
  • Trunk4
Explanation: S4 has the lowest bridge ID, thus S4 is the root bridge. Because the path cost S1-S2-S4 is lower than the path cost S1-S3-S4, path S1-S2-S4 is the preferred path for S1 to reach S4. Thus, STP will set the S1 port Fa0/1 to a blocking state, and the trunk link Trunk2 will not forward any traffic.

38. Which WLAN security protocol avoids attacks by strengthening the key exchange between clients and APs using a method known as Simultaneous Authentication of Equals?

  • WPA3-Personal
  • WEP
  • WPA2-Personal
  • WPA-Personal
Explanation: With WPA-Personal and WPA2-Personal modes, a malicious user can eavesdrop and capture the four-way handshake between a client and an AP. WPA3-Personal avoids such attacks by strengthening the key exchange between clients and APs through a method knows as SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals).

39. What is the reason for a network engineer to alter the default reference bandwidth parameter when configuring OSPF?

  • to more accurately reflect the cost of links greater than 100 Mb/s
  • to increase the speed of the link
  • to enable the link for OSPF routing
  • to force that specific link to be used in the destination route
Explanation: By default, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit, and 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces all have a cost of 1. Altering the default reference bandwidth alters the cost calculation, allowing each speed to be more accurately reflected in the cost.

40. Which statement describes the Cisco Embedded Event Manager?

  • It is a collector and aggregator of network telemetry data that performs network security analysis and monitoring.
  • It is a Cisco IOS tool that allows engineers to build task automation software applets.
  • It is a centralized management platform that aggregates and correlates threat events.
  • It is a security policy management platform that provides highly secure network access control (NAC) to users and devices.
Explanation: The Cisco Embedded Event Manager (EEM) is a Cisco IOS tool that uses software applets to automate tasks on a Cisco device. EEM is completely contained within the local device and needs no external scripting or monitoring device.

41. What is JSON?

  • It is a data format for storing and transporting data.
  • It is a compiled programming language.
  • It is a database.
  • It is a scripting language.
Explanation: JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) is a data format used by applications to store and transport data.

42. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?

  • The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
  • The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2.
  • This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
  • The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
Explanation: In a routing table, a route with the label O indicates a network that is advertised by another router in the same area. In this case, the exit interface is GigabitEthernet0/1. The designation O IA means the entry was learned from an interarea LSA that was generated from an ABR. Label O*E2 indicates an external network. In this case, the network designation of 0.0.0.0/0 indicates that this external network is the default route for all traffic that goes to external networks.

43. What is a purpose of the OSPFv3 type 8 and type 9 LSAs?

  • advertise default and external routes learned from other protocols
  • advertise NSSA LSAs for redistributed routes in an area
  • allow area routers to locate ASBRs in other areas
  • eliminate the need for SPF calculations when interface addresses are added or changed

44. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers R1 and R2 are configured for OSPFv3 and are routing for both IPv4 and IPv6 address families. Which two destination addresses will R1 use to establish a full adjacency with R2? (Choose two.)

  • ff02::5
  • fe80::2
  • 2001:db8:22::100
  • 172.17.66.1
  • 2001:db8:21:20::2

45. On an OSPF multiaccess network, which multicast address must a non-DR router use to send an LSU packet that contains new link-state information?

  • 224.0.0.5
  • 224.0.0.1
  • 224.0.0.6
  • 224.0.0.9
  • 224.0.0.2

46. Which configuration will prevent two directly connected Cisco routers from forming an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency?

  • configuring mismatched OSPF process IDs on two adjacent routers
  • configuring mismatched MTU values on two adjacent routers
  • configuring a router ID on two adjacent routers
  • configuring a LAN interface connected to a switch as a passive interface

47. Which type of OSPF link-state advertisement is a network LSA?

  • type 4
  • type 1
  • type 3
  • type 2

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?

  • The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
  • The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.
  • The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.
  • The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.
Explanation: The priority value 24576 is a predefined value that is implemented by the command spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary . This command configures Switch_2 to become the root switch. A root switch will have all forwarding interfaces and no root ports.

49. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

  • A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.
  • A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
  • A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.
  • A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
Explanation: Network traffic is classified and marked as close to the source device as possible. The trust boundary is the location where the QoS markings on a packet are trusted as they enter an enterprise network.

50. What advantage does WPA2 have over WPA?

  • WPA2 uses AES instead of TKIP.
  • WPA2 uses static key management.
  • WPA2 uses a 32-bit WEP key for encryption.
  • WPA2 allows the caching of key information.
Explanation: WPA2 uses the encryption algorithm AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) which is a stronger algorithm than WPA is, which uses TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol.) WPA was created to replace WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) which was easily compromised. However, the WPA TKIP had to take into account the older devices still using WEP on the network and as a result still had some of the WEP vulnerabilities. This was overcome with the creation of WPA2.

51. Which situation is an example of EAP deployment?

  • when a wireless client sends its MAC address to the AP for authentication after being validated by the internal database of the AP
  • when a client communicates with a RADIUS server for authenticated access to the network through the AP
  • when unauthenticated clients associate with the AP
  • when both the AP and client are configured with the same key or secret word for authentication by the AP
Explanation: In a 802.1x WLAN environment, WPA2 with EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) allows for a back-end authentication server like Radius. In this environment, even though the supplicant is authenticated by the AP, the actual authentication process is carried out by the back-end Radius server through the WLAN controller.

52. Which function is provided by the Cisco SD-Access Architecture controller layer?

  • It presents all information to the user via a centralized management dashboard.
  • It interconnects all of the network devices, thus forming a fabric of interconnected nodes.
  • It provides network automation and operational status information to the management layer.
  • It delivers data packets to and from the network devices participating in SD-Access.

53. Which authentication protocol is server-based and preferred for device access control?

  • 802.1x
  • RADIUS
  • TACACS+
  • SSHv2

54. What is a characteristic of TACACS+?

  • TACACS+ uses UDP port 1645 or 1812 for authentication, and UDP port 1646 or 1813 for accounting.
  • TACACS+ is backward compatible with TACACS and RADIUS.
  • TACACS+ is an open IETF standard.
  • TACACS+ provides authorization of router commands on a per-user or per-group basis.
Explanation: The TACACS+ protocol provides flexibility in AAA services. For example, using TACACS+, administrators can select authorization policies to be applied on a per-user or per-group basis.

55. Which two options best describe an exterior routing protocol (EGP)? (Choose two.)

  • a routing protocol that exchanges routing information between different autonomous systems
  • a routing protocol that exchanges routing information within an autonomous system
  • a routing protocol that is used for intradomain routing such as IS-IS and OSPFv3
  • an intradomain routing protocol
  • an interdomain routing protocol

56. Which two statements describe characteristics of shared trees for PIM distribution? (Choose two.)

  • A shared tree has a mandatory rendezvous point.
  • A shared tree places an (*,G) entry in the multicast routing table of each router.
  • A shared tree places an (S,G) entry in the multicast routing table of each router.
  • A shared distribution tree requires higher memory resources than the source distribution tree does.
  • A shared tree creates an optimal path between each source router and each last hop router.

57. A network administrator uses the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default global configuration command to enable BPDU guard on a switch. However, BPDU guard is not activated on all access ports. What is the cause of the issue?

  • BPDU guard needs to be activated in the interface configuration command mode.
  • Access ports configured with root guard cannot be configured with BPDU guard.
  • Access ports belong to different VLANs.
  • PortFast is not configured on all access ports.

58. A company deploys a Cisco wireless network over a large campus. A network administrator is configuring the Layer 3 roaming capability on WLCs. What is the purpose of using Layer 3 roaming?

  • to provide clients with the same IP address while they roam around campus
  • to enable internet access for clients on the wireless network
  • to provide intracontroller roaming for clients
  • to ensure that APs belonging to different mobility groups can communicate

59. What happens to the signal strength of an RF signal due to wave spreading?

  • The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off quickly near the transmitter but more slowly farther away.
  • The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off equally near the transmitter and also farther away.
  • The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the receiver and more quickly farther away.
  • The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the transmitter but more quickly farther away.

60. Which Cisco security solution uses dynamic content analysis to identify inappropriate content in real time for unknown websites?

  • Cisco AMP
  • Cisco Umbrella
  • Cisco Threat Grid
  • Cisco WSA

61. Which Cisco technology is based on the ETSI NFV architectural framework for reducing operational complexity of enterprise branch environments?

  • Cisco UCS
  • Cisco ISE
  • Cisco DNA
  • Cisco ENFV

62. A high school is deploying a wireless network for the campus. The wireless network consists of 100 lightweight APs and 3 WLCs. These 3 WLCs manage APs in 3 areas: (1) classroom buildings, (2) the library, the dining hall, and an indoor gymnasium, and (3) administration buildings. Which term is used to describe the type of roaming that occurs when a student using a smartphone roams from a classroom to the library?

  • intracontroller roaming
  • end user roaming
  • autonomous roaming
  • intercontroller roaming

63. A network administrator is configuring a prefix list with the ip prefix-list command. Which entry is valid?

  • ip prefix-list LIST1 seq 10 permit 192.168.10.0/15 le 23 ge 27
  • ip prefix-list LIST1 seq 1 permit 10.18.0.0/16 ge 12
  • ip prefix-list LIST1 seq 10 permit 12.16.10.0/12 le 22 ge 24
  • ip prefix-list LIST1 seq 5 permit 192.168.0.0/14 ge 24 le 28

64. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to match networks for BGP route filtering. The administrator creates an ACE permit ip 10.0.32.0 0.0.31.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.192 . Which network matches the ACE?

  • 10.0.32.0/27
  • 10.0.66.0/24
  • 10.0.62.0/25
  • 10.0.31.0/26

65. A network administrator is configuring IPv6 route summarization on a BGP router with the command aggregate-address 2001:db8::/60 summary-only . Which two component networks match the aggregated route? (Choose two.)

  • 2001:db8:0:24::/64
  • 2001:db8:0:12::/64
  • 2001:db8:0:15::/64
  • 2001:db8:0:0::/64
  • 2001:db8:0:e::/64

66. Which special-purpose mode is configured on a lightweight AP that is acting as a dedicated sensor while determining the position of stations using location-based services?

  • sniffer
  • local
  • rogue detector
  • monitor

67. A company has an extensive wireless network of multiple APs and a WLC. Users in one particular area complain of the lack of wireless connectivity. The network engineer verifies that the two APs in that area are communicating with the WLC. The network engineer checks the status of one particular client and the WLC interface shows a black client status dot for DHCP. The network engineer checks the status of another client and it too shows a black status dot of DHCP. What is the most likely problem?

  • The wireless devices do not have IP addressing information to participate on the wireless network.
  • The WLC has not been configured for DHCP.
  • The AP in the area has not received the proper IP addressing information.
  • The AP in the area has received an IP address, mask, and default gateway, but has not received the IP address of one or more WLCs with which to register.

68. How do Layer 3 switches differ from traditional routers?

  • Layer 3 switches never perform routing lookups. Routers must always perform routing lookups.
  • Layer 3 switches use ASICs for routing. Routers are software based.
  • Layer 3 switches are used in LANs. Routers are used in WANs.
  • Layer 3 switches forward packets based on MAC addresses only. Routers use IP addresses for forwarding.

69. Refer to the exhibit. The network has EIGRP configured on all routers and has converged on the routes advertised. PIM sparse mode has been also configured on all routers. The routers between the source and the rendezvous point (RP) have (S,G) state in the multicast routing table and the routers between the RP and the receivers have (*,G) state in their multicast routing tables. After the first multicast packet is received by the Receivers and the switchover takes place, how will the multicast traffic continue to flow from the source to the receivers?

  • The traffic will flow via source tree from the source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the receivers.
  • The traffic will flow via source tree from the source to the receivers.
  • The traffic will flow via shared tree from the source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the receivers.
  • The traffic will flow via shared tree from the source to the RP and via source tree from the RP to the receivers.

70. What determines the software image release that a lightweight access point will be running?

  • the wireless NIC driver version of the mobile device that connects to the AP
  • the WLC software release version on the WLC to which the AP joins
  • the version information provided by the DHCP server as part of the AP boot process
  • the IOS version of the access switch connected to the AP

71. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

  • reduced size of the physical layout
  • elimination of the need for wiring closets
  • simplification of management and troubleshooting
  • increased fault tolerance of the network
  • elimination of the need for Layer 3 functionality
  • reduced contention for bandwidth

72. Which situation is a good case for a network technician to troubleshoot a problem using the ERSPAN tool?

  • a problem in the purchasing department and accessing the switch that connects to all the purchasing network devices
  • a problem appeared on one switch, but the technician wants to have the mirrored traffic captured on another switch in the same building that is close to the workstation used by the technician
  • a problem where the technician suspects that traffic from one VLAN is affecting another VLAN
  • a problem that is at a different location, but within the same company

73. Which parameter must match for all switches in the same MST region?

  • IOS version
  • trunk link encapsulation method
  • version number
  • bridge priority

74. Which overlay tunnel technology is established by fabric APs to transport wireless client data in an SD-Access wireless deployment?

  • GRE
  • MPLS
  • IPsec
  • VXLAN

75. What are two differences between SNMP and NETCONF? (Choose two.)

  • SNMP runs over TCP, whereas NETCONF runs over UDP.
  • SNMP uses object identifiers (OIDs) to describe resources, whereas NETCONF uses paths.
  • SNMP cannot distinguish between configuration data and operational data, whereas NETCONF can.
  • SNMP can collect device status but cannot make configuration changes, whereas NETCONF can make configuration changes.
  • SNMP uses JSON to encode data, whereas NETCONF uses XML.

76. Which QoS model uses the DSCP bits to mark packets and provides 64 possible classes of service?

  • DiffServ
  • FIFO
  • best-effort
  • IntServ
Explanation: The DiffServ model uses 6-bits known as the DiffServ Code Point (DSCP) bits to mark traffic and offers a maximum of 64 possible classes of service. Diffserv-aware routers can then implement per-hop behaviors (PHBs) that can control packet forwarding based on the specified class of service.

77. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

  • IP precedence
  • Cos
  • DSCP
  • Tos
Explanation: The class of service (CoS) marking allows a Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be marked with eight levels of priority (values 0–7). This marking can be used by QoS-enabled network devices to provide preferential traffic treatment.

78. Which feature is used by an MST region to send VLAN information to a switch that runs PVST+?

  • PVST translation mechanism
  • PVST simulation mechanism
  • PVST transition mechanism
  • PVST conversion mechanism

79. What is a solution to mitigate the MST misconfiguration with improper VLAN assignment to the IST?

  • Ensure that only VLANs in the same MSTI for a trunk link are pruned.
  • Ensure that the MST region name is consistent across MST regions.
  • Move the affected VLAN to an MSTI other than the IST.
  • Move all active VLANs to the IST.

80. Which three statements describe the building blocks that make up the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three.)

  • IPsec uses encryption algorithms and keys to provide secure transfer of data.
  • IPsec uses Diffie-Hellman as a hash algorithm to ensure integrity of data that is transmitted through a VPN.
  • IPsec uses secret key cryptography to encrypt messages that are sent through a VPN.
  • IPsec uses Diffie-Hellman algorithms to encrypt data that is transferred through the VPN.
  • IPsec uses 3DES algorithms to provide the highest level of security for data that is transferred through a VPN.
  • IPsec uses ESP to provide confidential transfer of data by encrypting IP packets.

81. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are needed to complete the GRE tunnel configuration on router R1? (Choose two.)

  • R1(config-if)# tunnel source 172.16.2.1
  • R1(config-if #tunnel destination 172.16.2.2
  • R1(config-ifj#tunnel destination 209.165.202.129
  • R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 209.165.202.130
  • R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.130
  • R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.129

82. What are two reasons for creating an OSPE network with multiple areas? (Choose two.)

  • to ensure that an area is used to connect the network to the Internet
  • to provide areas in the network for routers that are not running OSPF
  • to reduce use of memory and processor resources
  • to simplify configuration
  • to reduce SPF calculations

83. On what type of OSPF router is interarea route summarization configured?

  • intra-area routers
  • ABRs
  • backbone routers
  • ASBRs
Explanation: Interarea summarization is manually configured on Area Border Routers (ABRs). Because ABRs connect multiple areas, it is these routers that would summarize routes before injecting them into another area. ASBRs are configured with external route summarization. Backbone and intra-area routers have all interfaces in a single area and are not able to summarize routes into other areas.

84. Refer to the exhibit. All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

  • fa0/10
  • fa0/21
  • fa0/13
  • fa0/20
  • fa0/9
  • fa0/11

85. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)

  • Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
  • Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
  • Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets are sent over static and dynamic routes.
  • Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
  • If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

86. Which two mode combinations would result in the successful negotiation of an EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

  • auto; auto
  • active; passive
  • active; on
  • passive; auto
  • desirable; active
  • desirable; desirable

87. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?

  • the IP address and the MAC address of R1
  • the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1
  • the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1
  • the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2
Explanation: Hosts will send an ARP request to the default gateway which is the virtual IP address. ARP replies from the HSRP routers contain the virtual MAC address. The host ARP tables will contain a mapping of the virtual IP to the virtual MAC.
– the IP address and the MAC address of R1

88. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

  • fully specified static route
  • directly attached static route
  • recursive static route
  • floating static route
Explanation: The route provided points to another address that must be looked up in the routing table. This makes the route a recursive static route.

89. What are two main components of SD-Access? (Choose two.)

  • Cisco Campus Fabric solution
  • Cisco Identity Services Engine
  • Cisco DNA Center
  • Cisco Network Control Platform
  • Cisco Network Data Platform

90. What are two purposes of LISP? (Choose two.)

  • It is an overlay tunneling technology.
  • It provides a permanent control plane connection over a DTLS tunnel.
  • It authenticates vSmart controllers and SD-WAN routers.
  • It performs load balancing of SD-WAN routers across vSmart controllers.
  • It is an architecture created to address routing scalability problems.

91. A network administrator has noticed an unusual amount of traffic being received on a switch port that is connected to a college classroom computer. Which tool would the administrator use to make the suspicious traffic available for analysis at the college data center?

  • SNMP
  • DHCP snooping
  • RSPAN
  • TACACS+
  • 802.1X

92. What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)

  • They limit access for management systems only.
  • They reduce the load on network and agent resources.
  • They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests.
  • They can passively listen for exported NetFlow datagrams.
  • They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that flow through Cisco devices.

93. Which three protocols are components in the operation of 802.1x? (Choose three.)

  • TACACS+
  • EAPoL
  • SSH
  • EAP
  • RADIUS
  • IPsec

94. Match the security platform to the description. (Not all options are used.)

  • Cisco Firepower Management Center – a centralized management platform that aggregates and correlates threat events
  • Cisco Stealthwatch – a collector and aggregator of network telemetry data
  • Cisco Identity Services Engine – a malware analysis and protection solution that goes beyond point-in-time detection
  • non – a security policy management platform that provides highly secure network access control (NAC)

95. What is required by wireless clients that participate in Cisco centralized key management for intracontroller roaming?

  • IEEE 802.11r support
  • maintaining a list of keys used with prior AP associations
  • Cisco Compatible Extensions (CCX) support
  • caching a portion of the key of the authentication server

96. A wireless network engineer who is new to the Cisco lightweight architecture is becoming familiar with common baselines for the APs in the company. One particular AP shows no clients attached, but shows 30% channel utilization on the 2.4 GHz channel and 0% channel utilization on the 5 GHz channel. What is the issue, if any?

  • There is an issue with the 5 GHz settings or the antenna.
  • The channel is significantly utilized by other nearby APs and clients using the 2.4 GHz frequency range.
  • Because no clients are attached to the AP and at least one of the frequency channels is showing utilization, authentication issues between the clients and the authentication server exist.
  • Because no clients are attached to the AP, the AP itself is suspect.

97. In which type of deployment is the Chef server hosted in the cloud?

  • private Chef
  • Chef Solo
  • hosted Chef
  • Chef Client and Server
Explanation: There are several types of deployment models for the Chef server.
Chef Solo: The Chef server is hosted locally on the workstation.
Chef Client and Server: This is a typical Chef deployment with distributed components.
Hosted Chef: The Chef server is hosted in the cloud.
Private Chef: All Chef components are within the same enterprise network.

98. How will user traffic be forwarded between two laptops that are both connected to the same lightweight access point in a large enterprise topology?

  • The lightweight access point will forward the traffic through a CAPWAP tunnel to a WLC and receive the return traffic from the WLC to forward to the other laptop.
  • The lightweight access point will forward the traffic through an upstream router and receive the return traffic from the router to forward to the other laptop.
  • The lightweight access point will forward the traffic on a trunk link to a distribution layer switch for routing and receive the return traffic to forward to the other laptop
  • The lightweight access point will switch the traffic between both laptops immediately.

99. A wireless engineer is deploying an autonomous Cisco access point. What must be configured on the access point to enable remote management?

  • management IP address
  • CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER. localdomain target
  • TFTP server IP address target
  • DHCP option 43

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