CCNA 2 v7

Modules 1 – 4: Switching Concepts, VLANs, and InterVLAN Routing Exam Answers

Modules 1 – 4: Switching Concepts, VLANs, and InterVLAN Routing Exam Answers Full

1. Which sentence correctly describes the SVI inter-VLAN routing method?

  • Subinterfaces have to be created.
  • The encapsulation type must be configured on the SVI.
  • An SVI is needed for each VLAN.
  • A physical interface is needed for every VLAN that is created.

2. How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?

  • Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.
  • Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.
  • Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.
  • Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.

3. What is required to perform router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

  • a Layer 2 switch that is configured with multiple trunk ports
  • a router with multiple physical interfaces
  • a multilayer switch
  • a router that is configured with multiple subinterfaces

4. An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick topology and concluded that the problem was related to the configuration of VLANs on the router subinterfaces. Which two commands can the administrator use in the router to identify the problem? (Choose two.)

  • show controllers
  • show ip interface
  • show ip protocols
  • show running-config
  • show vlan

5. Which command will provide information about the status of all interfaces including the number of giants, runts, and collisions on the interface?

  • show interfaces
  • show ip interface brief
  • show history
  • show running-config

6. Which statement describes the system LED operation on Cisco Catalyst switches?

  • If the LED is blinking green, the system is operating normally.
  • If the LED is amber, the system is not powered on.
  • If the LED is blinking amber, the switch is performing POST.
  • If the LED is amber, the system is receiving power but it is not functioning properly.

7. Which prompt is displayed when a network administrator successfully accesses the boot loader on a switch to recover from a system crash?

  • system:
  • system#
  • switch:
  • switch#

8. What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?

  • straight-through
  • crossover
  • coaxial
  • rollover

9. Which router bootup sequence is correct?​

  • 1 – perform the POST and load the Cisco IOS software
    2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode
    3 – locate and load the bootstrap program
  • 1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
    2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode
    3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software​
  • 1 – perform the POST and load the startup configuration file
    2 – locate and load the bootstrap program
    3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software​
  • 1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
    2 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software
    3 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode

10. What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?

  • encryption
  • more connection lines
  • connection-oriented services
  • username and password authentication

11. A network administrator has configured ​VLAN 99 as the management VLAN and has configured it with an IP address and subnet mask. The administrator issues the show interface vlan 99 command and notices that the line protocol is down. Which action can change the state of the line protocol to up?

  • Connect a host to an interface associated with VLAN 99.
  • Configure a default gateway.
  • Remove all access ports from VLAN 99.
  • Configure a transport input method on the vty lines.

12. Which statement describes SVIs?

  • An SVI is created automatically for each VLAN on a multilayer switch.
  • Creating an SVI automatically creates an associated VLAN.
  • A default SVI is created for VLAN 1 for switch administration.
  • An SVI can only be created for the management VLAN.

13. An administrator issues the command confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1> prompt. What is the effect when this router is rebooted?

  • Contents in RAM will be erased.
  • Contents in RAM will be ignored.
  • Contents in NVRAM will be erased.
  • Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.

14. Which statement is true about broadcast and collision domains?

  • Adding a router to a network will increase the size of the collision domain.
  • The size of the collision domain can be reduced by adding hubs to a network.
  • The more interfaces a router has the larger the resulting broadcast domain.
  • Adding a switch to a network will increase the size of the broadcast domain.

15. What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

  • forwards data based on logical addressing
  • duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
  • learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
  • determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address

16. What is the significant difference between a hub and a Layer 2 LAN switch?

  • A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides broadcast domains.
  • A switch creates many smaller collision domains, and a hub increases the size of a single collision domain.
  • Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port of a switch is a broadcast domain.
  • A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only packets.

17. What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

  • Drop the frame.
  • Send the frame to the default gateway address.
  • Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.
  • Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.

18. Which switch characteristic helps alleviate network congestion when a 10 Gbps port is forwarding data to a 1 Gbps port?

  • fast internal switching
  • high port density
  • fast port speed
  • frame buffering

19. Which switching method makes use of the FCS value?

  • broadcast
  • cut-through
  • large frame buffer
  • store-and-forward

20. What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?

  • the memory space that is allocated to each switch port
  • the number of available ports
  • the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port
  • the speed of each port

21. Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

  • the destination MAC address and the incoming port
  • the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
  • the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
  • the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
  • the source MAC address and the incoming port
  • the source MAC address and the outgoing port

22. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

  • Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.
  • Half duplex has only one channel.
  • All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
  • Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
  • Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

23. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

  • destination IP address
  • source IP address
  • destination MAC address
  • source MAC address

24. Which option correctly describes a switching method?

  • cut-through: makes a forwarding decision after receiving the entire frame
  • store-and-forward: forwards the frame immediately after examining its destination MAC address
  • cut-through: provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
  • store-and-forward: ensures that the frame is free of physical and data-link errors

25. Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?

  • router
  • Ethernet bridge
  • Ethernet hub
  • access point

26. What is the purpose of frame buffers on a switch?

  • They provide a basic security scan on received frames.
  • They provide temporary storage of the frame checksum.
  • They execute checksum values before transmission.
  • They hold traffic, thus alleviating network congestion.

27. Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

  • firewall
  • hub
  • router
  • switch

28. Which distinct type of VLAN is used by an administrator to access and configure a switch?

  • default VLAN
  • native VLAN
  • data VLAN
  • management VLAN

29. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

  • security
  • a reduction in the number of trunk links
  • cost reduction
  • end user satisfaction
  • improved IT staff efficiency
  • no required configuration

30. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

  • The port becomes inactive.
  • The port goes back to the default VLAN.
  • The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
  • The port creates the VLAN again.

31. In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?

  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • RAM
  • ROM

32. An administrator is investigating a failure on a trunk link between a Cisco switch and a switch from another vendor. After a few show commands, the administrator notices that the the switches are not negotiating a trunk. What is a probable cause for this issue?

  • Both switches are in trunk mode.
  • Both switches are in nonegotiate mode.
  • Switches from other vendors do not support DTP.
  • DTP frames are flooding the entire network.

33. What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?

  • It holds the running configuration.
  • It holds the saved configuration.
  • It holds the VLAN database.
  • It holds the operating system.

34. Where is the vlan.dat file stored on a switch?

  • in RAM
  • in NVRAM
  • in flash memory
  • on the externally attached storage media or internal hard drive

35. On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN information stored?

  • running configuration file
  • startup configuration file
  • NVRAM
  • flash

36. If an organization is changing to include Cisco IP phones in its network, what design feature must be considered to ensure voice quality?

  • Voice traffic needs to be tagged with the native VLAN.
  • A separate VLAN is needed for voice traffic.
  • Additional switch ports that are dedicated to Cisco IP phones are required.
  • Voice traffic and data traffic require separate trunk links between switches.

37. In which location are the normal range VLANs stored on a Cisco switch by default?

  • flash memory
  • startup-config
  • running-config
  • RAM

38. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

  • It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

39. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

  • The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
  • The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
  • A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
  • The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

40. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

  • unused VLAN ID
  • native VLAN ID
  • data VLAN ID
  • management VLAN ID

41. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​ (Choose two.)

  • between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs
  • between a switch and a client PC
  • between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC
  • between a switch and a network printer
  • between two switches that share a common VLAN

42. A PC is to access a web server on another network. Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway for the PC?

  • router on a stick
  • multilayer switch with routing enabled
  • trunked interface between the router and the switch
  • multiple physical interfaces on the router, all connected to a Layer 2 switch

43. Which scalable method must be implemented in order to provide inter-VLAN routing on a switched network with more than 1000 VLANs?

  • configuring static routes on a Layer 2 switch device
  • routing traffic internally to a Layer 3 switch device
  • connecting each physical router interface to a different physical switch port, with each switch port assigned to a different VLAN
  • connecting a router interface to a switch port that is configured in trunk mode to route packets between VLANs, with each VLAN assigned to a router subinterface​

44. When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?

  • to the interface
  • to the subinterface
  • to the SVI
  • to the VLAN

45. A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?

  • A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.
  • Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.
  • A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.
  • A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.

46. What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?

  • Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.
  • Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.
  • Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.
  • Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.

47. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?

  • router on a stick
  • routing via a multilayer switch
  • routing for the management VLAN
  • legacy inter-VLAN routing

48. What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

  • does not support VLAN-tagged packets
  • requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing
  • does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs
  • requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

49. What is the meaning of the number 10 in the encapsulation dot1Q 10 native router subinterface command?​

  • the interface number
  • the subinterface number​
  • the subnet number
  • the VLAN ID

50. While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?

  • to create a routed port for a single network
  • to provide a static trunk link
  • to create a switched virtual interface
  • to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic

51. A network administrator enters the following command sequence on a Cisco 3560 switch. What is the purpose of these commands?

  • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/1
    Switch(config-if)# no switchport
  • to shut down the Gi0/1 port
  • to make the Gi0/1 port a routed port
  • to enable the Gi0/1 port as a switch virtual interface
  • to enable the Gi0/1 port as a bridge virtual interface

52. What operational mode should be used on a switch port to connect it to a router for router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

  • trunk
  • access
  • dynamic auto
  • dynamic desirable

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