CCNA 3 v7

Modules 9 – 12: Optimize, Monitor, and Troubleshoot Networks Exam Answers

Modules 9 – 12: Optimize, Monitor, and Troubleshoot Networks Exam Answers


1. When should a network performance baseline be measured?

  • during normal work hours of an organization
  • immediately after the main network devices restarted
  • after normal work hours to reduce possible interruptions
  • when a denial of service attack to the network is detected and blocked

2. A networked PC is having trouble accessing the Internet, but can print to a local printer and ping other computers in the area. Other computers on the same network are not having any issues. What is the problem?

  • The PC has a missing or incorrect default gateway.
  • The default gateway router does not have a default route.
  • The switch port to which the PC connects has an incorrect VLAN configured.
  • The link between the switch to which the PC connects and the default gateway router is down.

3. A technician installed a network adapter in a computer and wants to test network connectivity. The ping command can receive responses from workstations on the same subnet but not from remote workstations. What could be causing the problem?

  • The NIC driver is out of date.
  • The operating system is not compatible with the remote sites.
  • The TCP/IP protocol stack is not loaded.
  • The default gateway is incorrect.

4. What network troubleshooting capability is provided by a cable analyzer?

  • discovering VLAN configuration and viewing switch interface details
  • testing and certifying of copper and fiber cables
  • measuring electrical values of voltage, current, and resistance
  • generating reports on traffic that is consuming critical network resources

5. Under which condition does congestion occur on a converged network with voice, video, and data traffic?

  • if the request for bandwidth exceeds the amount of bandwidth available
  • if video traffic requests more bandwidth than voice traffic requests
  • if voice traffic latency begins to decrease across the network
  • if a user downloads a file that exceeds the file limitation that is set on the server

6. Which type of traffic does Cisco recommend be placed in the strict priority queue (PQ) when low latency queuing (LLQ) is being used?

  • video
  • data
  • voice
  • management

7. Which model is the only QoS model with no mechanism to classify packets?

  • IntServ
  • DiffServ
  • best-effort
  • hard QoS

8. What happens when the memory queue of a device fills up and new network traffic is received?

  • The network device sends the received traffic immediately.
  • The network device will drop the arriving packets.
  • The network device drops all traffic in the queue.
  • The network device queues the received traffic while sending previously received traffic.

9. What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)

  • It is delay sensitive.
  • It is bursty.
  • It can tolerate latency up to 400 ms.
  • It consumes few network resources.
  • It is insensitive to packet loss.

10. Which QoS model is very resource intensive and provides the highest guarantee of QoS?

  • DiffServ
  • best-effort
  • IntServ
  • soft QoS

11. What happens when an edge router using IntServ QoS determines that the data pathway cannot support the level of QoS requested?

  • Data is forwarded along the pathway using a best-effort approach.
  • Data is forwarded along the pathway using DiffServ.
  • Data is not forwarded along the pathway.
  • Data is forwarded along the pathway using IntServ but not provided preferential treatment.

12. In QoS models, which type of traffic is commonly provided the most preferential treatment over all other application traffic?

  • voice traffic
  • email
  • web traffic
  • file transfers

13. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

  • FIFO
  • CBWFQ
  • WFQ
  • FCFS

14. What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them outbound in a steady stream?

  • digital signal processor
  • playout delay buffer
  • voice codec
  • WFQ

15. What are two reasons for an administrator to issue the copy running-config tftp command on a switch or router? (Choose two.)

  • to force an automatic reload of the device
  • to overwrite the current configuration
  • to have a backup of the running configuration file in the router​
  • to save the running configuration file to a remote location
  • to transfer the current configuration file to a server

16. What information can be gathered about a neighbor device from the show cdp neighbors detail command that cannot be found with the show cdp neighbors command?

  • the platform that is used by the neighbor
  • the IP address of the neighbor
  • the capabilities of the neighbor
  • the hostname of the neighbor

17. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

  • packet encryption
  • message integrity
  • community strings
  • source validation

18. What command must be issued on a Cisco router that will serve as an authoritative NTP server?

  • ntp master 1
  • ntp server 172.16.0.1
  • ntp broadcast client
  • clock set 11:00:00 DEC 20 2010

19. Which protocol or service can be configured to send unsolicited messages to alert the network administrator about a network event such as an extremely high CPU utilization on a router?

  • SNMP
  • syslog
  • NTP
  • NetFlow

20. Which statement describes a syslog message severity level?

  • Severity level 0 is the most critical severity level.
  • A syslog alarm at the severity level 4 and higher is sent to an external syslog server by default.
  • A syslog alarm with a severity level of 7 indicates an emergency situation that can render the system unusable.
  • A severity level 7 message is only accessible through the terminal line.

21. What is an SNMP management agent?

  • a computer loaded with management software and used by an administrator to monitor a network
  • a database that a device keeps about network performance
  • software that is installed on devices managed by SNMP
  • a communication protocol that is used by SNMP

22. What are two characteristics of SNMP community strings? (Choose two.)

  • A vulnerability of SNMPv1, SNMPv2, and SNMPv3 is that they send the community strings in plaintext.
  • Commonly known community strings should be used when configuring secure SNMP.
  • If the manager sends one of the correct read-only community strings, it can get information and set information in an agent.
  • SNMP read-only community strings can be used to get information from an SNMP-enabled device.
  • SNMP read-write community strings can be used to set information on an SNMP-enabled device.

23. A network administrator issues the copy tftp running-config command on a router. What is the administrator trying to achieve?

  • copy the configuration file from the TFTP server to the RAM of the router
  • copy the configuration file from the RAM of the router to the TFTP server
  • copy the configuration file from the NVRAM of the router to the TFTP server
  • copy the configuration file from the TFTP server to the NVRAM of the router

24. What is a characteristic of the MIB?

  • Information is organized in a flat manner so that SNMP can access it quickly.
  • The OIDs are organized in a hierarchical structure.
  • A separate MIB tree exists for any given device in the network.​
  • Information in the MIB cannot be changed.

25. What data would be saved and where would the data be placed if a network administrator issued the following command? (Choose two.)

  • R1# copy startup-config tftp
  • The data to be saved is the configuration that is being modified in RAM.
  • The data to be saved is the configuration that is stored on a TFTP server.
  • The data to be saved is the configuration that is stored in NVRAM.
  • The data will be saved in NVRAM.
  • The data will be saved to a TFTP server.
  • The data will be saved in RAM.

26. Which command would a network engineer use to restore the IOS image c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin to a router?

  • copy tftp: flash0:
  • copy flash0: tftp:
  • copy c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin tftp:
  • copy flash0: c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin

27. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

  • to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
  • to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
  • to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
  • to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

28. What are SNMP trap messages?

  • messages that are used by the NMS to query the device for data
  • unsolicited messages that are sent by the SNMP agent and alert the NMS to a condition on the network
  • messages that are used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device
  • messages that are sent periodically by the NMS to the SNMP agents that reside on managed devices to query the device for data

29. Which cost-effective physical network topology design is recommended when building a three-tier campus network that connects three buildings?​

  • bus
  • mesh
  • extended star
  • dual ring

30. How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of switching when operating at full wire speed?

  • 44 Gb/s, due to overhead requirements
  • 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
  • 48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
  • 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time

31. What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?

  • failure domain
  • collision domain
  • broadcast domain
  • user domain

32. Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?

  • network edge routers
  • branch routers
  • modular routers
  • service provider routers

33. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

  • the use of a collapsed core design
  • the use of the building switch block approach
  • the installation of redundant power supplies
  • the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume

34. What is a function of the distribution layer?

  • fault isolation
  • network access to the user
  • high-speed backbone connectivity
  • interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

35. What is the function of PoE pass-through?

  • allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer 2 loops
  • allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
  • allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 switching by bypassing the CPU
  • allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links

36. Which function is supplied by the access layer in a three-layer network design?

  • high-speed connectivity
  • routing
  • application of policies
  • network access
  • backbone connectivity

37. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

  • Immediately replace a nonfunctioning module, service ,or device on a network.
  • Purchase backup equipment for every network device at the distribution layer.
  • Implement STP PortFast between the switches on the network.
  • Add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network.

38. What is a collapsed core in a network design?

  • a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers
  • a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers
  • a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers
  • a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers

39. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?

  • access
  • core
  • data link
  • network
  • network access

40. Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

  • link aggregation
  • Spanning Tree Protocol
  • virtual private networks
  • virtual LANs

41. Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the bandwidth by combining multiple physical links into a single logical link?

  • VLANs
  • trunk ports
  • subinterfaces
  • EtherChannel

42. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

  • They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
  • They are best used as distribution layer switches.
  • They are modular switches.
  • New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.

43. Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

  • implementing EtherChannel
  • implementing wireless connectivity
  • implementing redundancy
  • implementing routing protocols

44. Which statement describes the physical topology for a LAN?

  • It depicts the addressing scheme that is employed in the LAN.
  • It describes whether the LAN is a broadcast or token-passing network.
  • It defines how hosts and network devices connect to the LAN.
  • It shows the order in which hosts access the network.

45. A network engineer is troubleshooting a network problem where users cannot access the FTP server at the same IP address where a website can be successfully accessed. Which troubleshooting method would be the best to apply in this case?

  • comparing IP settings on user workstations
  • top-down
  • bottom-up
  • divide-and-conquer

46. A computer technician performed a number of actions to correct a problem. Some actions did not solve the problem, but eventually a solution was found. What should be documented?

  • everything that was done to try to solve the problem
  • only the solution, because this solved the problem
  • only the failed attempts, so that future technicians will know what not to try
  • a description of the problem and solution

47. A network engineer is troubleshooting a network problem and can successfully ping between two devices. However, Telnet between the same two devices does not work. Which OSI layers should the administrator investigate next?

  • all of the layers
  • from the network layer to the application layer
  • from the network layer to the physical layer
  • only the network layer

48. While designing changes to a data center because of a new IoE implementation, a network administrator has the job of diagramming the new physical topology of the area. What should be included in the physical topology diagram?

  • technical specifications of firewalls
  • the service level agreement from the ISP
  • cable locations and lengths between servers and switches
  • the IP addressing scheme for all workstations in the company

49. A network technician is troubleshooting an email connection problem. Which question to the end-user will provide clear information to better define the problem?

  • Is your email working now?
  • How big are the emails you tried to send?
  • What kind of equipment are you using to send emails?
  • When did you first notice your email problem?

50. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to pinpoint the distance to a break in a network cable?

  • digital multimeter
  • network analyzer
  • network analysis module
  • cable tester

51. Which troubleshooting software is an example of a network management system tool?

  • Wireshark
  • WhatsUp Gold
  • CyberGauge
  • LANsurveyor

52. What is the purpose of establishing a network baseline?

  • to provide an inventory of network devices
  • to document and analyze the network traffic
  • to help monitor and troubleshoot network performance
  • to verify the configuration of routers and switches on the network

53. After which step in the network troubleshooting process would one of the layered troubleshooting methods be used?

  • documenting symptoms
  • determining ownership
  • narrowing the scope
  • gathering symptoms from suspect devices

54. A company is setting up a web site with SSL technology to protect the authentication credentials required to access the web site. A network engineer needs to verify that the setup is correct and that the authentication is indeed encrypted. Which tool should be used?

  • fault-management tool
  • protocol analyzer
  • baselining tool
  • cable analyzer

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